MATERIALS ENGINEER REVIEWER - DPWH

1. What is the test frequency for concrete compressive and flexural strength?

a)   1 set per 75 m³

b)   2 set per 85 m³ 

c)   1 set per 50 m³

d)   2 set per 75 m³

 2. How many sets of concrete beam specimen are you going to prepare for 800 m³ of concrete mix?

a)   5

b)   7

c)   9

d)  11

 
3. Concrete specimen molded in a 6" Ø x 12" cylinder should be rodded _______ times per layer.

a)   25

b)   56

c)   63

d)  10

 
4. Concrete specimen molded in a 6" x 6" x 21" beam should be rodded _______ times per layer.

a)   26

b)   25  

c)   63

d)   62

 
5. Max temperature of fresh concrete

a)   32 ^oC

b)   31 ^oC

c)   30 ^oC

d)   29 ^oC

           
6. Immersion depth of thermometer when getting fresh concrete temperature

a)   1”

b)   2.5”

c)   3”

d)   2”

           
7. Use to monitor the consistency of unhardened concrete.

a)   Unit weight

b)   Grading

c)   Slump test

d)   Abrasion

           
8. How many strokes per layer is applied on slump test?

a)   20

b)   22

c)   23

d)   25  

9. What is the approximate depth of the first layer on slump test?

a)   67 mm

b)   75 mm

c)   100 mm

d)   150 mm

 
10. What is the approximate depth of the first plus second layer on slump test?

a)   200 mm

b)   175 mm

c)   155 mm

d)   130 mm

 
11. Water Curing temperature for concrete samples.

a)   23± 2 ^oC

b)   22± 3 ^oC

c)   21± 2 ^oC

d)   20± 3 ^oC

 
12. Condition of concrete during compression test.

a)   Dry

b)   Moist

c)   Wet

d)   Any of the above

 
13. Specimen test at 28 days shall be broken within the permissible time tolerance of _____.

a)   8 h

b)   12 h

c)   20 h

d)   24 h

 
14. Criteria for Acceptance of concrete.

a)   Average of all set of 3 exceeds specified strength and no individual strength deficient by 25%

b)   Average of all set of 3 exceeds specified strength and no individual strength deficient by 20%

c)   Average of all set of 3 exceeds specified strength and no individual strength deficient by 15%

d)   Average of all set of 3 exceeds specified strength and no individual strength deficient by 10%

           
15. Concrete deemed to be not acceptable using compressive strength criteria may be rejected unless the    contractor can provide evidence by means of coring. Concrete represented by cores will be considered if:

a)   Average strength of cores is equal to at least 85% and no single core is less than 75% f’c.

b)   Average strength of cores is equal to at least 95% and no single core is less than 90% f’c.

c)   Average strength of cores is equal to at least 90% and no single core is less than 85% f’c.

d)   Average strength of cores is equal to at least 85% and no single core is less than 70% f’c.

           
16. Truck mixer mixing speed shall be within ___.

a)   4 – 6 rpm

b)   3 – 6 rpm

c)   2 – 6 rpm

d)   3 – 5 rpm

           
17. Maximum drop height of placing concrete mixture shall be ___?

a)   1 m

b)   1.5 m

c)   2 m

d)   3 m

           
18. Pre-stressed concrete requires the use of Class ____ concrete. 

a)   C

b)   P

c)   B

d)   A

 
19. What is the minimum cement content per m³ on a class C concrete?

a)   9

b)   9.1

c)   9.5

d)   8

           
20. The boundary between sand and gravel is ______.

a)   4.750 mm (#4)

b)   2.00 mm (#10)

c)   0.075 mm (#200

d)   0.425 mm (#40)

 
21. Concrete not place within ____ minutes from the time the ingredients were charged into the mixing drum shall not be use.

a)   120 minutes

b)   150 minutes

c)   60 minutes

d)   90 minutes

 
22. For sampling sand from stock pile, what is the size of tube to be inserted in the pile at random location?

a)   30 mm dia., 2 m long

b)   28 mm dia., 2 m long

c)   25 mm dia., 2 m long

d)   20 mm dia., 2 m long

 
23. What is the unit weight of steel?

a)   7,900 kg/m³

b)   7,800 kg/m³

c)   7,850 kg/m³

d)   8,000 kg/m³

 
24. What is the unit mass of a 10 mm diameter RSB?

a)   0.628 kg

b)   0.617 kg

c)   0.820 kg

d)   0.817 kg

 
25. What is the nominal weight of 16mm diameter x 6 m length RSB?

a)   9.468 kg

b)   9.909 kg

c)   9.280 kg

d)   9.017 kg

 

26. What is the maximum permissible variation in actual weight of a steel bar from the theoretical weight?             

a)   ±6%

b)   ±7%

c)   ±8%

d)   ±9%

           
 
27. You are an experience material engineer of your firm. During compaction you found out that soil is too wet. What economical recommendation will you give?

a)   Reject the soil

b)   Remove and replace the soil

c)   Continuous compaction

d)   Scarify and dry the soil by exposing it to air under suitable conditions

 
28. Clays when removed from the borrow pits come out in the form of chunks. If you are the assigned material engineer in the field, what is the most suitable compacting equipment will you recommend?

a)   Tandem roller

b)   Vibratory Roller

c)   Pneumatic tired roller

d)   Sheep’s foot roller

 
29. As an experience field material engineer, without the aid of laboratory equipment, it happens that your sample is hard, what practical method will you used in determining whether your hard sample is soil or rock?

a)   By pulverizing with a hammer

b)   By submerging into the water

c)   By chipping

d)   By visualizing

 
30. An experience field material engineer can easily identify whether the soil sample is plastic without the aid of laboratory equipment.

a)   By air drying

b)   By heating

c)   Sample of moist soil molded and rolled into thin threads without breaking or crumbling

d)   By soaking into the water

 
31. What is the estimated diameter of the soil thread when rolled between the palm of the hand and the glass plate begins to crumble in plastic determination?

a)   1/4”

b)   1/8”

c)   1/2"

d)   3/16”

 
32. You are the material engineer of a certain company doing an earth road construction. During the progress of construction highly organic soil was encountered. What will you recommend to your firm?

a)   Blend the highly organic soil with granular materials

b)   Remove and replace with more stable materials

c)   Cover the highly organic soil with boulders

d)   Place several logs on the highly organic soils

           
33. You are the materials engineer of your firm. It so happens that in the preparation of the as-staked plans it was found out that there was an increase and new additional items of work from the original quality control program submitted.

a)   Maintain the old submitted quality control program

b)   Revised the quality control program

c)   Delete the increase and the new additional item

d)   Any of the above

 
34. If there is a strength deficiency in the concrete specimens and it is not feasible or not advisable to obtain cores from the structure due to structural considerations, as materials engineer, what will you recommend?

a)   Send letter to your superior for his decision

b)   Recommend immediately adjusted price of payment with respect to the deficiency incurred

c)   Both a and b

d)   Tolerate the strength deficiency

 

35. Vibratory steel-wheel roller for compaction shall have a minimum mass of _____ tonnes?

a)   4

b)   6

c)   8

d)   10

           
36. Free-haul distance if not provided in the contract shall be _______?

a)   400 m

b)   500 m

c)   600 m

d)   1 km

           
37. What type of concrete specimens shall be taken in pavement structure?

a)   Cylinder

b)   Beam

c)   Cube

d)   Frustum

           
38. Flexural strength of Portland Cement Concrete Pavement (PCCP) when tested at third point?

a)   24.1 MPa

b)   21.4 MPa

c)   4.5 MPa

d)   3.8 MPa

 
39. What is the minimum required cement content per cubic meter of concrete to meet the minimum strength for Item 311 PCCP?

a)   364 kg

b)   400 kg

c)   450 kg

d)   460 kg

 
40. What is the maximum spacing for operating vibrators?

a)   40 cm

b)   50 cm

c)   60 cm

d)   70 cm

 
 
41. In no case shall the vibrator be operated longer than ______ seconds in one location.

a)   3 seconds

b)   5 seconds

c)   7 seconds

d)  15 seconds

 
42. Sawed Contraction Joint shall be created by sawing groves in the surface of the pavement of the width not more than ____ mm and depth not less than ____ mm.

a)   5 mm width and 40 mm depth

b)   6 mm width and 50 mm depth

c)   7 mm width and 30 mm depth

d)   8 mm width and 50 mm depth

 
43. Sawing of the joint shall commence as soon as concrete has hardened sufficiently to permit sawing without excessive raveling, usually ________ hours.

a)   4 to 24 hours

b)   24 hours

c)   28 hours

d)   72 hours

 
44. When there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in concreting operations. No transverse joint shall be constructed within ______ meters of an expansion joint, contraction joint, or weakened plane joint.

a)   1 meter

b)   1.5 meter

c)   2 meter

d)   2.5 meter

           
45. The brooming corrugation on pavement shall be uniform in appearance and not more than ____ mm in depth.

a)   0.5 mm

b)   1.0 mm

c)   1.5 mm

d)   2.0 mm

           
46. Concrete pavement surface when tested with a 3-m straight edge shall have maximum surface deviation of ____?

a)   3 mm

b)   5 mm

c)   7 mm

d)   8 mm

           
47. If the strength requirement for Item 311 PCCP does not meet the strength requirement, and it is not feasible to obtain cores, payment of concrete will be made at an adjusted price due to strength deficiency.
What is the strength percent deficiency of the specimen for the item to be paid 100% of the contract price?

a)   Less than 5

b)   5 to less than 10

c)   10 to less than 15

d)   15 to less than 20

           
48. How many cores shall be obtained on each lot for pavement thickness determination?

a)       1

b)       2

c)       3

d)       5

 
49. When any core is deficient by more than 25 mm, additional cores shall be taken at what interval parallel to the center line in each direction from the affected location?

a)   1 m

b)   2.5 m

c)   3 m

d)   5 m

 
50. When average thickness of the pavement per lot is deficient by more than 25 mm. What will be the price adjustment?

a)     85% of the contract

b)     70% of the contract

c)     50% of the contract

d)     Remove and replace / No payment

 
51. What is the degree of compaction of soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3 with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?

a)     100.80

b)     124.69

c)     101.86

d)     112.24

 
52. Prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least _____.

a)     6 hours

b)    12 hours

c)     24 hours

d)     4 hours

 
53. _____ is applied on existing bituminous or cement concrete surface.

a)     Prime Coat

b)     Tack Coat

c)     Seal Coat

d)     Surface Treatment

 
54. Classification of soil which 35% or less the particles pass through no. 200 sieve.

a)     Grain size soil

b)     Granular materials

c)     Silty clay materials

d)     Clayey materials

 
55. Classification of soil which 35% or more of the particles pass through no. 200 sieve

a)       Course Sand Soil

b)       Granular Materials

c)       Silty-Clay Materials

d)       Clayey Materials

 
56. The minimum penetration of the preservative into the surface of the timber shall be ____?

a)     15 mm

b)     20 mm

c)     25 mm

d)     10 mm

 
57. How many hours do aggregate stockpile or binned for draining before being batch?

a)     1 hour

b)     6 hours

c)     12 hours

d)     24 hours

 
58. Cast in place concrete shall not be post – tensioned until at least ____ and until the compressive strength has reached the strength specified.

a)     7 days

b)     10 days

c)     14 days

d)     20 days

 
59. Tests for coarse aggregate include ________.

a)     Mortar strength

b)     Abrasion and Absorption

c)     Flexural Strength

d)     None of the above

 
60. Tests for fine aggregate include __________.

a)     Gradation and mortar strength

b)     Abrasion and absorption

c)      Flexural Test

d)     None of the above

 
61. Quality determination of concrete coarse aggregate sample requires _______.

a)     Abrasion test

b)     Sieve analysis

c)     Stability

d)     both a and b

 
62. It is rounded particles of rock which will pass 3” sieve and retained on a #10 sieve.

a)     Gravel

b)     Stone

c)     Coarse

d)     Fine

 
63. Pouring permit duly approved and issued by:

a)     Contractors ME

b)     DPWH ME

c)     Contractor PE

d)     DPWH PE

 
64. In conducting AASHTO T96, what is the diameter of steel spheres used?

a)     49.5 mm

b)     48.6 mm

c)     46.8 mm

d)     45.9 mm

65.  Scales for weighing aggregates and cement shall be accurate within ____ % throughout the range of use. Scales shall be inspected and sealed as often as the Engineer may deem necessary to assure their continued accuracy.

a)     1.0 %

b)     0.5 %

c)     1.5 %

d)     2.0 %

 
66. How many spheres are used in abrasion test grading A at 500 revolutions?

a)     6

b)     8

c)     10

d)     12

 
67. Submission of sample for testing for cement is _____.

a)     10 kg

b)     20 kg

c)     15 kg

d)     40 kg

 
68.  ________ is the slump of workable concrete if vibrated.

a)    10 – 20 mm

b)    10 – 40 mm

c)     40 – 50 mm

d)     40 – 75 mm

 
69. Which plasticity index is most suitable for aggregate base course? The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No. 40) shall have a liquid limit not greater than 25 and plasticity index not greater than 6.

a)     15

b)     10

c)      6

d)     50

 
70. ____________ is the method used in determining the strength of concrete pipes. 

a)     Third point loading

b)     Three-edge bearing test

c)      Mid-span loading

d)     None of the above

 
71. If an asphalt pavement will be constructed over an old existing concrete pavement, _________ should be applied to the concrete pavement. 

a)     Seal coat

b)     Tack coat 

c)      Prime coat

d)     Mortar coat

 
72. Coarse aggregate for Bituminous Macadam Pavement should be ___________. 

a)     Crushed gravel or crushed stone

b)     Natural gravel

c)     both a and b

d)     None of the above

 
 
 
 
73. Unless otherwise specified in the special provision, the type of Portland cement used in paving concrete shall be _________. 

a)     Type III

b)     Type II

c)      Type IV

d)     Type I

 
74. During construction of a road project, if all the materials to be used are tested for quality, inspection is no longer required.

a)     False

b)     True

 
75. The degree of compaction of an embankment in our present Specification is based on _____.

a)     Unconfined compression test

b)     AASHTO Designation T-180

c)     Bulk Specific Gravity

d)     CBR method

  
76. A soil with a Group Index of 5 is stronger than another with a Group Index of 10. 

a)     False

b)     True

c)     It depends on the Water Content

d)     None of the above

 
77. This typical material of this group is fine beach sand or fine desert blow sand without silty clay fines or with very small amount on non-plastic Silt.

a)     Group A-1

b)     Group A-3

c)     Group A-5

d)     Group A-7

 
78. Rock Excavation consist of igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rock which cannot be excavated without blasting or the use of rippers, and all boulders or other detached stone each having a volume of ________.

a)     2 cu.m.

b)     1 cu.m.

c)     3 cu.m.

d)     0.5 cu.m.

 
79. What is the minimum quantity per linear meter for steel pipes (Galvanized)?

a)     4 pcs. 100 mm (taken from both ends without threads)

b)     3 pcs. 100 mm (taken from both ends without threads)

c)     2 pcs. 100 mm (taken from both ends without threads)

d)     1 pc. 100 mm (taken at end without thread)

 
80. A sample from a bituminous mix weighs 1000 grams. At extraction, it was found out that the dry aggregate weighed 950 grams. What is the % of asphalt by weight of mix?

a)     5.2 %

b)     5.0 %

c)     5.4 %

d)     4.8%

 
81. The contractor shall submit in writing a job-mix formula for the mixture supported by laboratory test data along with samples of resources of components and viscosity – temperature relationships to the Engineer for testing and approval at least ____.

a)     Two weeks

b)     Three weeks

c)     One week

d)     Four weeks

 
82. The penetration test is an indication of the ____ of asphalt.

a)     Consistency

b)     Softness

c)      Hardness

d)     Flash Point

 
83. Specification requires one (1) Quality test for every ____ of asphalt.

a)     20 tons

b)     200 tons

c)     50 tons

d)     40 tons

 
84. _____ is an indication that the asphalt mix is overheated.

a)     Blue smoke

b)     Stiff appearance

c)     Rising steam

d)     Mix slumps in truck

85. In soil, all boring shall be carried to a depth of at least ____ below the proposed grade line.

a)     0.50 m

b)     1.5 m

c)     1.0 m

d)     1.8 m

 
86. ___________ is the moisture in an air – dried soil

a)     Moisture Content

b)     Natural Moisture Content

c)     Hygroscopic Moisture Content

d)     Hydrometer Moisture Content

 
87. In which DPWH item is emulsified asphalt not suitable?

a)     Item 301

b)     Item 302

c)     Item 304

d)     Item 308

 
88. Asphalt cement shall not be used while it is foaming nor shall be heated at ____ any time after delivery.

a)     107 ^oC

b)     159 ^oC

c)     120 ^oC

d)     100 ^oC

           
89. How many gradation ranges for hot plant mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?

a)     5

b)     6

c)     7

d)     8

 
90. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?

a)     Not greater than 4

b)     Not greater than 6

c)     Not greater than 8

d)     Zero

 
 
91. Paint contains _____ of pigment and _____ vehicle.

a)     20 % & 80 %

b)     21 % & 79 %

c)     79 % & 21 %

d)     80 % & 20 %

  
92. If the dry stability is 1,300 psi, wet stability of 1,250 psi and air voids of 3%, what is the index of retained strength?

a)     96.15 %

b)     99. 15 %

c)     104 %

d)     101 %

 
93. _________ is the temperature tolerance of mix in bituminous after job-mix is established.

a)     ± 10 ^oC

b)     ± 12 ^oC

c)      ± 15 ^oC

d)     ± 18 ^oC

 
94. In a soil exploration, if the characteristic of rock is

questionable, the minimum depth of boring into the bedrock

should be _______.

a)     1.5 m

b)     2.0 m

c)      2.5 m

d)     3.0 m

 
95. When group index = 0, what is the grade of soil?

a)    Weak soil

b)    Poor soil

c)    Good soil

d)    Very poor soil

 
96. ________ is the limit were further loss of water due to evaporation which will not result in reduction of volume.

a)     Plastic limit

b)     Liquid limit

c)      Shrinkage limit

d)     Credit limit

 
97. It evaluates the quality of soil as highway subgrade material.

a)    Atterberg Limit

b)    Plasticity Index

c)    Group Index

d)    Liquid Limit

 
98. Failed samples does not necessary mean that the structure it represents is defective why?

a)    Maybe sampling is incorrect

b)    Maybe sampling is correct

c)    Maybe curing is correct

d)    Maybe testing is correct

 
99. Before the project starts the Materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report is this?

a)   Program of work

b)   Program of activities

c)   Quality control activities

d)   Quality control program

 
100. As the work progresses the Materials Engineer should know how many samples has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the Materials Engineer must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials being used in the project?

a)   Quality control assurance report

b)   Quality control program

c)   Status of Test

d)   None of the above

 

 
 
ANSWERS

DISCLAIMER

Answers are taken from latest available reference upon the upload date of this blog.

For instances that there are future update of standards, the new update shall govern.

1.   A
2.   D
3.   A
4.   C
5.   A
6.   C
7.   C
8.   D
9.   A
10.  C
11.  A
12.  B
13.  C
14.  C
15.  A
16.  A
17.  B
18.  B
19.  C
20.  A
21.  D
22.  A
23.  C
24.  B
25.  A
26.  A
27.  D
28.  D
29.  B
30.  C
31.  B
32.  B
33.  B
34.  B
35.  B
36.  C
37.  B
38.  D
39.  A
40.  C
41.  D
42.  B
43.  A
44.  B
45.  C
46.  A
47.  A
48.  D
49.  D
50.  D
51.  C
52.  C
53.  B
54.  B
55.  C
56.  B
57.  C
58.  B
59.  B
60.  A
61.  D
62.  A
63.  D
64.  C
65.  B
66.  D
67.  A
68.  B
69.  C
70.  B
71.  B
72.  A
73.  D
74.  A
75.  B
76.  B
77.  B
78.  B
79.  C
80.  B
81.  B
82.  A
83.  D
84.  A
85.  B
86.  C
87.  A
88.  B
89.  C
90.  A
91.  B
92.  A
93.  A
94.  D
95.  C
96.  C
97.  C
98.  A
99.  D
100. C